Free SQE Mock Test 52 — 20 Questions + Full Answers
Solicitors Qualifying Examination · Trainee solicitors · SQE1 sits: Jan & Jul
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Applaa SQE Mock Test 52
applaa-sqe-mock-52.pdf · 20 questions
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8 of 20 shownCorrect answers highlighted in green. Full explanations included.
A builder (Samuel) contractually agreed to construct a wall for a customer (Jack) for £5,000. Halfway through the job, the builder states they cannot finish unless the customer pays an extra £1,000. The customer agrees. After completion, the customer refuses to pay the extra £1,000. Under Williams v Roffey Bros, is the promise to pay the extra £1,000 binding?
- A.No, because performing an existing contractual duty can never be good consideration.
- B.Yes, if the customer obtained a practical benefit (such as avoiding a penalty clause to a third party) and there was no economic duress.
- C.No, because a promise to pay more must be approved by the County Court under CPR regulations.
- D.Yes, because oral contracts are automatically binding regardless of consideration.
- E.No, because it violates Section 52 of the Law of Property Act 1925.
✓ Worked Explanation
Core Concept: Consideration and Practical Benefit (Williams v Roffey Bros) The traditional rule (Stilk v Myrick) held that performing an existing contractual duty cannot be good consideration. Williams v Roffey Bros [1990] modified this rule: performing an existing duty CAN be valid consideration if the promisee obtains a 'practical benefit'. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. Traditional Rule: A builder promising to finish what they're already contractually bound to do provides nothing new - no consi
A claimant (Edward) has applied for summary judgment against a defendant (Sophia) under CPR Part 24. What is the test that the court must apply to determine whether summary judgment should be granted?
- A.The claimant must prove the case beyond all reasonable doubt.
- B.The defendant has no real prospect of successfully defending the claim, and there is no other compelling reason why the case should be disposed of at trial.
- C.The value of the claim must be less than £10,000.
- D.The defendant has failed to acknowledge service of the claim form within 14 days.
- E.The dispute involves questions of international law.
✓ Worked Explanation
Core Concept: Summary Judgment under CPR Part 24 Summary judgment allows a party to obtain judgment *without a full trial* where the opposing party's case has no real prospect of success. It is a cost-effective tool that avoids unnecessary litigation. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. Who Can Apply: Either the claimant or defendant can apply for summary judgment under CPR Part 24.2. 2. The Test: The court will grant summary judgment if: - The defendant has no real prospect of successfully defendin
A claimant (Edward) makes a valid CPR Part 36 settlement offer to the defendant (Mia) of £95,000. The defendant rejects the offer. The case goes to trial, and the claimant wins, obtaining judgment of £109,249. What is the primary costs consequence under Part 36?
- A.The claimant must pay the defendant's costs on the indemnity basis.
- B.The defendant must pay the claimant's costs on the indemnity basis, plus interest on those costs, from the expiry of the relevant offer period.
- C.The court will split the trial costs equally between both parties.
- D.All costs recovery is capped at the Small Claims Track limit.
- E.The defendant is immune to costs penalties because they defended the claim in good faith.
✓ Worked Explanation
Core Concept: CPR Part 36 Offers and Cost Consequences A Part 36 offer is a formal settlement mechanism under CPR. When a claimant's Part 36 offer is beaten at trial (i.e., judgment exceeds the offer), the defendant faces automatic cost penalties designed to encourage early settlement. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. Edward's Offer: £95,000 - a valid Part 36 offer. 2. Mia's Decision: Rejected the offer and proceeded to trial. 3. Trial Outcome: Edward wins £109,249 - which *exceeds* the Part 36 offe
Zoe offered to sell a agricultural tractor to Evelyn for £5,000. Evelyn replied: 'I accept your offer, but I will pay £4,500.' Zoe did not respond. Two days later, Evelyn wrote to Zoe saying: 'I accept your original offer of £5,000.' Is there a binding contract between Zoe and Evelyn?
- A.Yes, because the second letter constituted a valid acceptance of the original offer.
- B.Yes, because the original offer remained open and had not been revoked by the offeror.
- C.No, because the counter-offer of the lower price killed the original offer, meaning it could no longer be accepted.
- D.No, because a contract for sale of goods must be made in writing signed by both parties.
- E.Yes, because the offeror's silence on the counter-offer constituted acceptance of the lower price.
✓ Worked Explanation
Core Concept: Counter-Offer and the Death of the Original Offer A counter-offer is a rejection of the original offer combined with a new offer on different terms. Once a counter-offer is made, the original offer is extinguished - it cannot be revived or accepted later. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. Original Offer: Zoe offers the agricultural tractor for £5,000. 2. Counter-Offer: Evelyn replies with £4,500 - this is a counter-offer, NOT an acceptance. Under Hyde v Wrench (1840), this kills the ori
A director of Pinnacle Ventures Ltd (a private company limited by shares) wants to allot new shares to a new investor (Zoe) to raise capital of £55,000. The company has only one class of ordinary shares. Under the Companies Act 2006, which of the following is correct regarding the director's authority to allot these shares?
- A.The director has automatic statutory authority to allot the shares without shareholder approval under Section 550, unless restricted by the articles.
- B.The director must always obtain authorization by ordinary resolution of the shareholders under Section 551.
- C.The director must obtain authorization by special resolution of the shareholders to allot any shares.
- D.The director requires the approval of the Board of Trade before alloting any class of shares.
- E.Authority is only required if the allotment would cause the company to exceed its authorised share capital as stated in the memorandum.
✓ Worked Explanation
Core Concept: Director's Authority to Allot Shares (Section 550 CA 2006) The Companies Act 2006 grants directors of private companies with a single class of shares a specific statutory power to allot shares of that class without requiring shareholder approval - unless the articles restrict this. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. Identify Company Type: Pinnacle Ventures Ltd is a *private* company limited by shares with *one* class of ordinary shares. 2. Apply Section 550: Directors of such a company h
A seller (Amelia) negligently makes a false statement of fact regarding the turnover of a business to a buyer (James), inducing them to buy it. The buyer subsequently discovers the fraud. Which of the following describes the remedies available under the Misrepresentation Act 1967?
- A.The contract is automatically void, and the seller must be prosecuted criminally.
- B.Rescission of the contract and/or damages under Section 2(1) of the Act.
- C.The buyer can only recover damages and has no right to rescind the contract under any circumstances.
- D.The contract is binding, and no remedy is available since the buyer should have checked the accounts (caveat emptor).
- E.The seller is required to perform specific performance of the turnover projection.
✓ Worked Explanation
Core Concept: Misrepresentation Act 1967 - Remedies The Misrepresentation Act 1967 classifies misrepresentation into three types (fraudulent, negligent, innocent) and provides different remedies for each. A negligent misrepresentation under Section 2(1) is the most commonly tested in SQE. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. Identify the Type: A *negligent* false statement of fact made by Amelia to induce James to buy. 2. Remedy Under Section 2(1): The innocent party (James) may: - Rescind the contra
A claimant (James) has applied for summary judgment against a defendant (Katelyn) under CPR Part 24. What is the test that the court must apply to determine whether summary judgment should be granted?
- A.The claimant must prove the case beyond all reasonable doubt.
- B.The defendant has no real prospect of successfully defending the claim, and there is no other compelling reason why the case should be disposed of at trial.
- C.The value of the claim must be less than £10,000.
- D.The defendant has failed to acknowledge service of the claim form within 14 days.
- E.The dispute involves questions of international law.
✓ Worked Explanation
Core Concept: Summary Judgment under CPR Part 24 Summary judgment allows a party to obtain judgment *without a full trial* where the opposing party's case has no real prospect of success. It is a cost-effective tool that avoids unnecessary litigation. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. Who Can Apply: Either the claimant or defendant can apply for summary judgment under CPR Part 24.2. 2. The Test: The court will grant summary judgment if: - The defendant has no real prospect of successfully defendin
A claimant was injured when a defendant (Amelia), who was engaged in operating a crane without safety barriers, caused an accident. The defendant admits they owed the claimant a duty of care and breached it, but argues that the claimant's own negligence contributed to the injury. Under the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act 1945, what is the legal effect of contributory negligence?
- A.It acts as a complete defense, and the claimant receives no damages.
- B.It reduces the claimant's damages to the extent that is just and equitable, reflecting the claimant's share of responsibility.
- C.It has no effect on damages but requires the claimant to pay the defendant's legal costs.
- D.It shifts the burden of proof to the claimant to show that they took all reasonable precautions.
- E.It renders the claim null and void, requiring allocation to criminal arbitration.
✓ Worked Explanation
Core Concept: Contributory Negligence (Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act 1945) Contributory negligence is a partial defence - it does not defeat the claim entirely, but reduces the damages awarded to reflect the claimant's own responsibility for their injury. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. Identify the Defence: Amelia admits negligence but argues the claimant also contributed to their own injury (e.g., not wearing a seatbelt, failing to follow safety instructions). 2. Legal Effect (LRCNA 19
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Paper Info
- Exam
- SQE
- Mock number
- 52 of 250
- Questions
- 20
- Format
- Multiple Choice (MCQ)
- Sections
- 1
- Audience
- Trainee solicitors
- Timing
- SQE1 sits: Jan & Jul
- Copyright
- Applaa Proprietary
Sections Covered
- FLK1
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