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All SQE mocks

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SQE · Free Mock Test 207 of 250

Free SQE Mock Test 207 — 20 Questions + Full Answers

Solicitors Qualifying Examination · Trainee solicitors · SQE1 sits: Jan & Jul

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Applaa SQE Mock Test 207

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Sample Questions — SQE Mock 207

8 of 20 shown

Correct answers highlighted in green. Full explanations included.

FLK1

An employee of Meridian Group Ltd negligently injures a customer (Mia) while driving a company delivery van to make a scheduled delivery. The customer sues Meridian Group Ltd. What is the legal doctrine that allows the employer to be held liable, and what is the test?

A.Res Ipsa Loquitur; requires showing the van was in a defective condition.
B.Vicarious liability; requires showing that the employee committed a tort in the course of their employment.
C.Strict liability; requires showing the employer acted with malicious intent.
D.Privity of liability; requires a signed agreement between the employer and the customer.
E.Contributory liability; requires allocating the claim to the Multi-Track.

✓ Worked Explanation

Core Concept: Vicarious Liability Vicarious liability makes an employer strictly liable for torts committed by their employee, where the tort occurs in the 'course of employment'. It is a form of secondary liability - the employer is liable even without their own fault. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. Identify the Employer-Employee Relationship: The delivery driver is an employee of Meridian Group Ltd (not an independent contractor). 2. Course of Employment Test: Was the tort committed while perfor

FLK1

A claimant (Jack) has brought an action against a defendant (Quinn) in the County Court for breach of contract, claiming £15,000 in damages. The defendant has filed a defense. In accordance with the Civil Procedure Rules (CPR), which track will this claim be allocated to?

A.Small Claims Track
B.Fast Track
C.Intermediate Track
D.Multi-Track
E.Commercial Court Track

✓ Worked Explanation

Core Concept: CPR Track Allocation The Civil Procedure Rules (CPR) allocate civil claims to one of four procedural tracks based primarily on *financial value* (and sometimes complexity). Each track has different procedural rules, costs caps, and hearing formats. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. Identify the Claim Value: The claim is for £15,000. 2. Apply the Track Thresholds: - Small Claims Track: £10,000 (for most claims; £1,000 for personal injury/housing disrepair) - Fast Track: > £10,

FLK1

A seller (Sophia) negligently makes a false statement of fact regarding the turnover of a business to a buyer (Zoe), inducing them to buy it. The buyer subsequently discovers the fraud. Which of the following describes the remedies available under the Misrepresentation Act 1967?

A.The contract is automatically void, and the seller must be prosecuted criminally.
B.Rescission of the contract and/or damages under Section 2(1) of the Act.
C.The buyer can only recover damages and has no right to rescind the contract under any circumstances.
D.The contract is binding, and no remedy is available since the buyer should have checked the accounts (caveat emptor).
E.The seller is required to perform specific performance of the turnover projection.

✓ Worked Explanation

Core Concept: Misrepresentation Act 1967 - Remedies The Misrepresentation Act 1967 classifies misrepresentation into three types (fraudulent, negligent, innocent) and provides different remedies for each. A negligent misrepresentation under Section 2(1) is the most commonly tested in SQE. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. Identify the Type: A *negligent* false statement of fact made by Sophia to induce Zoe to buy. 2. Remedy Under Section 2(1): The innocent party (Zoe) may: - Rescind the contract (

FLK1

A driver (Emma) crashes into a pedestrian (Victor) who is crossing the street, causing physical injuries. To establish negligence, the claimant must show that the defendant owed them a duty of care. How does the court establish if a duty of care exists for physical damage caused by positive actions?

A.By applying the three-stage Caparo test including fair, just, and reasonable criteria in every case.
B.By finding that the case falls within an established duty category (such as road users to other road users) where a duty is automatically owed (Robinson v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire).
C.By checking if the defendant signed a voluntary duty registration form.
D.By proving the defendant intended to cause physical harm.
E.By allocating the claim to the Fast Track under CPR guidelines.

✓ Worked Explanation

Core Concept: Duty of Care - Established Categories (Robinson v Chief Constable) Not every case requires a full Caparo analysis. The Supreme Court in Robinson v Chief Constable of West Yorkshire Police [2018] confirmed that where a case falls into an *established duty category*, the duty is owed as a matter of precedent. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. Is this an Established Category?: A driver ('Emma') causing physical injury to a pedestrian (Victor) through a positive act clearly falls within an

FLK1

A claimant (Kevin) has applied for summary judgment against a defendant (Georgia) under CPR Part 24. What is the test that the court must apply to determine whether summary judgment should be granted?

A.The claimant must prove the case beyond all reasonable doubt.
B.The defendant has no real prospect of successfully defending the claim, and there is no other compelling reason why the case should be disposed of at trial.
C.The value of the claim must be less than £10,000.
D.The defendant has failed to acknowledge service of the claim form within 14 days.
E.The dispute involves questions of international law.

✓ Worked Explanation

Core Concept: Summary Judgment under CPR Part 24 Summary judgment allows a party to obtain judgment *without a full trial* where the opposing party's case has no real prospect of success. It is a cost-effective tool that avoids unnecessary litigation. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. Who Can Apply: Either the claimant or defendant can apply for summary judgment under CPR Part 24.2. 2. The Test: The court will grant summary judgment if: - The defendant has no real prospect of successfully defendin

FLK1

A seller (Helen) negligently makes a false statement of fact regarding the turnover of a business to a buyer (Victoria), inducing them to buy it. The buyer subsequently discovers the fraud. Which of the following describes the remedies available under the Misrepresentation Act 1967?

A.The contract is automatically void, and the seller must be prosecuted criminally.
B.Rescission of the contract and/or damages under Section 2(1) of the Act.
C.The buyer can only recover damages and has no right to rescind the contract under any circumstances.
D.The contract is binding, and no remedy is available since the buyer should have checked the accounts (caveat emptor).
E.The seller is required to perform specific performance of the turnover projection.

✓ Worked Explanation

Core Concept: Misrepresentation Act 1967 - Remedies The Misrepresentation Act 1967 classifies misrepresentation into three types (fraudulent, negligent, innocent) and provides different remedies for each. A negligent misrepresentation under Section 2(1) is the most commonly tested in SQE. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. Identify the Type: A *negligent* false statement of fact made by Helen to induce Victoria to buy. 2. Remedy Under Section 2(1): The innocent party (Victoria) may: - Rescind the c

FLK1

A shopkeeper (Charlie) places a vintage watch in the shop window with a price tag of £35,000. A customer (Laura) enters the shop, places the cash on the counter, and demands to buy the item. The shopkeeper refuses to sell it. Is there a binding contract?

A.Yes, because placing the item in the window was a unilateral offer that was accepted by the customer's cash payment.
B.No, because the display of goods in a shop window is an invitation to treat, not an offer. Refusing to sell does not breach any contract (Fisher v Bell).
C.Yes, because consumer protection laws force retailers to sell all displayed items automatically.
D.No, because contracts for sales in shops require a written signed document.
E.Yes, because the shopkeeper was silent when the customer entered, constituting acceptance.

✓ Worked Explanation

Core Concept: Invitation to Treat vs. Offer A binding contract requires a valid *offer* and *acceptance*. The display of goods in a shop window or on a shelf is an invitation to treat - an invitation for customers to make offers. It is fundamentally different from a legal offer, which can be accepted to form a contract. Step-by-Step Resolution: 1. What is an Invitation to Treat?: A display of goods with a price tag is not an offer - it is merely an expression of willingness to deal on those ter

FLK1

A shopkeeper (Ian) places a designer coat in the shop window with a price tag of £7,500. A customer (James) enters the shop, places the cash on the counter, and demands to buy the item. The shopkeeper refuses to sell it. Is there a binding contract?

A.Yes, because placing the item in the window was a unilateral offer that was accepted by the customer's cash payment.
B.No, because the display of goods in a shop window is an invitation to treat, not an offer. Refusing to sell does not breach any contract (Fisher v Bell).
C.Yes, because consumer protection laws force retailers to sell all displayed items automatically.
D.No, because contracts for sales in shops require a written signed document.
E.Yes, because the shopkeeper was silent when the customer entered, constituting acceptance.

✓ Worked Explanation

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Frequently Asked Questions

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What is FLK1 in the SQE exam?+

FLK1 (Functioning Legal Knowledge 1) is the first part of the SQE1 assessment, testing substantive and procedural law across multiple legal practice areas with multiple-choice questions. Each Applaa SQE mock covers FLK1-style questions with full explanations.

How many SQE practice questions are in each mock?+

Each Applaa SQE mock test contains 20 functioning legal knowledge questions with worked explanations, mirroring the question style of the real SQE1 assessment.

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